Answer :
Answer:
0.6882 is the probability that his sample will contain at least one damaged apple.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given the following information:
We treat damaged apple as a success.
P(damaged apple) = 11% = 0.11
Then the number of damaged apple follows a binomial distribution, where
[tex]P(X=x) = \binom{n}{x}.p^x.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]
where n is the total number of observations, x is the number of success, p is the probability of success.
Now, we are given n = 10 and x = 1
We have to evaluate:
[tex]P(x \geq 1) = 1 - P( x = 0) \\= 1 - \binom{10}{0}(0.11)^0(1-0.11)^{(10-1)}\\= 1 - 0.3118 = 0.6882[/tex]
0.6882 is the probability that his sample will contain at least one damaged apple.