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A 22-year-old woman presents in moderate distress, complaining of diffuse lower abdominal pain. She states that the pain has become progressively worse for the past two weeks and she is now unable to walk without an increase in pain. Your physical exam reveals severe pain with palpation of the lower abdomen and the following vital signs: heart rate 102, blood pressure 118/74 mmHg, and respirations 20. Which of the following statements made by the patient would most indicate the presence of pelvic inflammatory disease?A. ​My boyfriend was just diagnosed with​ chlamydia.B. ​My last menstrual cycle was​ normal.C. I have chronic urinary tract​ infections.D. ​I just had an IUD​ inserted.

Answer :

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Pelvic Inflammatory disease is caused by presence of STI like chlamydia.  Recent insertion of IUD greatly increase the risk of developing PID.

D is the most direct indicator of presence of PID

Answer: option A ( my boyfriend was just diagnosed with Chlamydia)

Explanation: Since the system wouldn't permit the submission of explanation with words it conciders "vulgar", you can see the attached for explanation.

${teks-lihat-gambar} ifesynwajesuschrist
${teks-lihat-gambar} ifesynwajesuschrist

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